
In Monopoly, eg. One person has 4 railways, two of which are mortgaged….?
the other person lands on one of the unmortgaged properties. does this person pay for all four railways ($200) or just the unmorgaged ones ($50)?
- our point that we cant figure out: the card states that if four railways are ‘owned’, you get $200.
- the rules states: “no rent can be collected on mortgaged properties or utilities, BUT rent can be collected on unmortgaged properties in the same group.”
- but, if the four railways are in the same group but two are mortgaged, then wouldn’t that mean that you only collect for the unmortgaged ones?
PLEASE HELP!!! WE ARE HAVING A BATTLE OVER IT!!!
Practically everyone who has answered above is ACTUALLY WRONG!!!
Just because a person has two of the railroads ( or any other property for that matter ) mortgaged… it doesn’t mean that he no longer OWNS THEM!!!
That person still OWNS the property even though it may be mortgaged… So… that person “OWNS” all four railroads and would be entitled to the 200 dollars if someone landed on either of the two unmortgaged railroads…
Yes, you only collect when someone lands on either of the two UNMORTGAGED properties… but you still collect the 200 because you still OWN all four railroads!!!
Send the question to Parker Brothers themselves… they’ll tell you the correct answer!!!
Okay, BECKY, I just looked up my old rules that came with 1935 Commemorative Edition of Monopoly ( that was the 50th anniversary edition)!!!
It’s states right on the back of the rulebook under “Questions that people ask about Monopoly Rules”…
If you own all four railroads and mortgage one or more of them, you may still collect $200 rent when an opponent lands on an unmortaged railroad.
So, it’s right there in the official rules put out by Parker Brothers!!!!
But, you don’t have to take my word for it… just send PB an E-Mail with your question and they will tell you the correct answer!!
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